Thursday, January 31, 2019

Quiz Chapter 3-4 CyberOps Version 1 CCNA




1. Fill in the blank.
A Linux administrator will use either the CLI or the GUI when communicating with the operating system.

2. What is the outcome when a Linux administrator enters the man man command?

  • The man man command configures the network interface with a manual address
  • The man man command provides a list of commands available at the current prompt
  • The man man command provides documentation about the man command
  • The man man command opens the most recent log file

3. Fill in the blank.
A short name of the X Window System is X .

4. Fill in the blank.
A process that runs in the background without the need for user interaction is known as
a daemon

5. Which term is used to describe a running instance of a computer program?

  • fork
  • package manager
  • patch
  • process

6. Which method can be used to harden a computing device?

  • Force periodic password changes.
  • Allow USB auto-detection.
  • Allow default services to remain enabled.
  • Update patches on a strict annual basis irrespective of release date.

7. Which Linux component would be used to access a short list of tasks the application can
perform?

  • Dash Search Box
  • Launcher
  • Quicklist
  • System and Notification Menu

8. Which type of tool is used by a Linux administrator to attack a computer or network to
find vulnerabilities?

  • PenTesting
  • malware analysis
  • intrusion detection system
  • firewall

9. Which working environment is more user-friendly?

  • a CLI
  • a GUI
  • the command prompt
  • a hybrid GUI and CLI interface

10. True or False?
The Linux GUI is the same across different distributions.
true false

11. Which types of files are used to manage services in a Linux system?

  • device files
  • configuration files
  • system files
  • directory files

12. What is a benefit of Linux being an open source operating system?

  • Linux distributions are maintained by a single organization.
  • Linux distribution source code can be modified and then recompiled.
  • Linux distributions must include free support without cost.
  • Linux distributions are simpler operating systems since they are not designed to be connected to a network.

13. Fill in the blank.
The process of assigning a directory to a partition is known as mount .

14. Consider the result of the ls -l command in the Linux output below. What are the group
file permissions assigned to the analyst.txt file?
ls –l analyst.txt
-rwxrw-r-- sales staff 1028 May 28 15:50 analyst.txt

  • read, write, execute
  • read only
  • read, write
  • full access


15. Fill in the blank.
An application package is a specific program and all its supported files.

16. A client application needs to terminate a TCP communication session with a server. Place
the termination process steps in the order that they will occur. (Not all options are used.)

  • step 1 client sends FIN
  • step 2 server sends ACK
  • step 3 server sends FIN
  • step 4 client sends ACK

17. What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address
2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?

  • 2001:0:abcd::1
  • 2001:0:0:abcd::1
  • 2001::abcd::1
  • 2001:0000:abcd::1
  • 2001::abcd:0:1

18. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same
message simultaneously?

  • duplex
  • unicast
  • multicast
  • broadcast

19. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose
three.)

  • ARP
  • DHCP
  • DNS
  • FTP
  • NAT
  • PPP

20. Which message does an IPv4 host use to reply when it receives a DHCPOFFER message
from a DHCP server?

  • DHCPACK
  • DHCPDISCOVER
  • DHCPOFFER
  • DHCPREQUEST

21. What addresses are mapped by ARP?

  • destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address
  • destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address
  • destination IPv4 address to the destination host name
  • destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address

22. Which statement is true about FTP?

  • The client can choose if FTP is going to establish one or two connections with the server.
  • The client can download data from or upload data to the server.
  • FTP is a peer-to-peer application.
  • FTP does not provide reliability during data transmission.

23. Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP
model? (Choose two.)

  • data link
  • network
  • physical
  • session
  • transport

24. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination MAC address of the Ethernet frame as it
leaves the web server if the final destination is PC1?

  • 00-60-2F-3A-07-AA
  • 00-60-2F-3A-07-BB
  • 00-60-2F-3A-07-CC
  • 00-60-2F-3A-07-DD


25. Fill in the blank.
ARP spoofing is a technique that is used to send fake ARP messages to other hosts
in the LAN. The aim is to associate IP addresses to the wrong MAC addresses.

26. Which statement is true about the TCP/IP and OSI models?

  • The TCP/IP transport layer and OSI Layer 4 provide similar services and functions.
  • The TCP/IP network access layer has similar functions to the OSI network layer.
  • The OSI Layer 7 and the TCP/IP application layer provide identical functions.
  • The first three OSI layers describe general services that are also provided by the TCP/IP internet layer.

27. What OSI layer is responsible for establishing a temporary communication session
between two applications and ensuring that transmitted data can be reassembled in proper
sequence?

  • transport
  • network
  • data link
  • session

28. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on
communications?

  • The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
  • The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
  • The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
  • There is no impact on communications.

29. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC3. In
this scenario, what will happen next?

  • RT1 will forward the ARP request to PC3.
  • RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/0 MAC address.
  • RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC3 MAC address.
  • SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.
  • RT1 will send an ARP reply with its own Fa0/1 MAC address.

30. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a
description of the default gateway address?

  • It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
  • It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
  • It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
  • It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

Friday, January 25, 2019

Quiz Chapter 1-2 CyberOps Version 1 CCNA




QUIZ 1-2 CyberOPS Version 1 CCNA

1. After a security incident is verified in a SOC, an incident responder reviews the incident
but cannot identify the source of the incident and form an effective mitigation procedure.
To whom should the incident ticket be escalated?
a SME for further investigation
a cyberoperations analyst for help
an alert analyst for further analysis
the SOC manager to ask for other personnel to be assigned

2. Which three technologies should be included in a SOC security information and event
management system? (Choose three.)
proxy service
threat intelligence
security monitoring
user authentication
intrusion prevention
event collection, correlation, and analysis

3. What name is given to hackers who hack for a politcal or social cause?
white hat
hacker
blue hat
hactivist

4.
What is cyberwarfare?
It is an attack only on military targets.
It is an attack designed to disrupt, corrupt, or exploit national interests.
It is an attack on a major corporation.
It is an attack that only involves robots and bots.

5. The term cyber operations analyst refers to which group of personnel in a SOC?
SOC managers
Tier 1 personnel
Tier 2 personnel
Tier 3 personnel

6. Match the job titles to SOC personnel positions. (Not all options are used.)
Tier 1 Alert Analyst –
Tier 2 Incident Responder –
Tier 3 Subject Matter Expert –

7. What is a rogue wireless hotspot?
It is a hotspot that was set up with outdated devices.
It is a hotspot that does not encrypt network user traffic.
It is a hotspot that does not implement strong user authentication mechanisms.
It is a hotspot that appears to be from a legitimate business but was actually set
up by someone without the permission from the business.

8. How can a security information and event management system in a SOC be used to help personnel fight against security threats?
by filtering network traffic
by collecting and filtering data
by authenticating users to network resources
by encrypting communications to remote sites

9. Which organization is an international nonprofit organization that offers the CISSP
certification?
IEEE
GIAC
(ISC)
2d
CompTIA

10. A computer is presenting a user with a screen requesting payment before the user data is
allowed to be accessed by the same user. What type of malware is this?
a type of virusou Answered
a type of logic bomb
a type of worm
a type of ransomware

11. Fill in the blank.
A
vurnerability is a flaw or weakness in a computer operating system that can be
exploited by an attacker.

12. Which net command is used on a Windows PC to establish a connection to a shared
directory on a remote server?
net use
net start
net share
net session

13. When a user makes changes to the settings of a Windows system, where are these
changes stored?
Registry
Control Panel
win.ini
boot.ini

14. Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?
The default gateway device is configured with the wrong IP address.
Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it from processing ping requests.
The default gateway is not operational.
The TCP/IP stack on the default gateway is not working properly.

15. True or False?
For ease of administration, it is recommended that the Everyone group in Windows have
Full Control permissions.
True False

16. Which Windows version was the first to introduce a 64-bit Windows operating system?
Windows NT
Windows XP
Windows 7
Windows 10

17. Which type of startup must be selected for a service that should run each time the
computer is booted?
automatic
boot
manual
start
startup

18. How much RAM is addressable by a 32-bit version of Windows?
4 GB
8 GB
16 GB
32 GB

19. What contains information on how hard drive partitions are organized?
MBR
CPU
BOOTMGR
Windows Registry

20. A user creates a file with .ps1 extension in Windows. What type of file is it? PowerShell script
PowerShell cmdlet
PowerShell function
PowerShell documentation

21. What is the purpose of the cd\ command?
changes directory to the root directory
changes directory to the next highest directory
changes directory to the previous directory
changes directory to the next lower directory

22. How can a user prevent specific applications from accessing a Windows computer over a network?
Enable MAC address filtering.
Disable automatic IP address assignment.
Block specific TCP or UDP ports in
Windows Firewall. Change default usernames and passwords.

23. Fill in the blank.
When a
restrictive security policy is implemented on a firewall, only certain
required ports are opened. The rest are closed.

24. What utility is used to show the system resources consumed by each user?
Task Manager
User Accounts
Device Manager
Event Viewer

25. Which command is used to manually query a DNS server to resolve a specific host
name?
nslookup
ipconfig /displaydns
tracert
net

Konfigurasi PPP dengan Autentikasi PAP pada Router di Packet Tracer


Konfigurasi PPP dengan Autentikasi PAP pada Router di Packet Tracer
Pengertian PPP atau Point to Point protocol adalah platform yang digunakan untuk menghubungkan komputer individu atau jaringan komputer ke  internet service provider. Sambungan dibuat antara dua titik, oleh sebab itu disebut Point-to-Point. PPP dianggap menjadi solusi terbaik untuk menghubungkan komputer ke jaringan internet.
Arsitektur dasar PP berlapis dan lapisan paling bawah adalah LCP atau Link Control Protocol. Link Control Protocol bertanggung jawab untuk membuat sambungan. Internet Packet control protocol atau IPCP mengirim dan menerima paket-paket melalui link yang didirikan oleh Link Control Protocol atau LCP.
  • PPP menyediakan dua metode otentikasi, yaitu: Password Authentication Protokol yang menggunakan password untuk mengotentikasi atau Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol yang menggunakan handshake server dengan dial up sebagai otentikasi.
  • PPP memungkinkan berbagai jenis protokol berfungsi pada platform dan pada link yang sama.
  • PPP juga selain itu  memeriksa link yang dibentuk oleh protokol termasuk yang disebut dengan fasilitas link level echo yang memeriksa jika link beroperasi dengan benar.
Fungsi Point to Protokol yang utama adalah  memeriksa apakah kondisi line atau saluran telepon yang sedang beroperasi bekerja dengan baik. Point to Point Protocol juga memeriksa password dan setelah melalui semua pemeriksaan awal kemudian menetapkan koneksi dengan ISP dan melakukan permintaan alamat IP.


PAP ( Password Authentication Prtocol ) yaitu prosedur otentitkasi dengan 2 langkah , yaitu :
  • User yang akan mengakses sistem, akan mengirimkan otentifikasi identitas, biasanya berupa user dan password.
  • Sistem akan mengecek validitas identifikasi dan password dengan cara menerima atau menolak koneksi.

Topologi PPP - PAP


Hal yang harus pertama kali kita lakukan adalah setting IP terlebih dahulu. Setting IP address sesuai dengan topologi. Setelah IP sudah semua di masukkan, lakukan route static pada kedua router.

Jika sudah sekarang kita akan melakukan settingan PPP dengan autentikasi PAP pada topologi tersebut.

Pada R1 :

R1(config) # username R2 password cisco
R1(config) # int se0/1/0
R1(config-if) # encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if) # ppp authentication pap
R1(config-if) # ppp pap sent-username R1 password cisco


Pada R2 :

R1(config) # username R1 password cisco
R1(config) # int se0/1/0
R1(config-if) # encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if) # ppp authentication pap
R1(config-if) # ppp pap sent-username R2 password cisco

Pastikan settingan encapsulation nya berhasil dengan menggunakan perintah  show int se0/1/0

Encapsulation PPP


Perhatikan juga untuk mengecek pada PPP ini siapa yang sebagai DCE dan DTE dengan perintah show con se0/1/0

DCE 

Jika settingan pada router telah dilakukan PPP, tetapi PC ke PC masih tidak dapat melakukan ping, coba lakukan setting CLOCK RATE menjadi 125000.

1. DTE ( Data Terminal Equipment )

DTE adalah perangkat yang berfungsi untuk menerima sinyal dari pusat dan melanjutkannya ke user. DTE berhubungan dengan beberapa perangkat yang memungkinkan pengguna untuk berkomunikasi. 
Contoh Perangkat DTE : PC, Laptop, Client PC, dll 


2. DCE ( Data Circuit Equipment )

DCE adalah perangkat yang berfungsi mengkonversi sinyal, coding dan dapat menjadi bagian dari perangkat DTE.
Contoh Perangkat DCE : Hub, Switch, Modem, dll 


3. CPE (Customer Premise Equipment )

CPE adalah perangkat yang terletak pada  lokasi pelanggan dan terhubung dengan saluran komunikasi.
Contoh Perangkat CPE : Jaringan Telepon 

Sunday, January 6, 2019

CCNA SECOPS (210-255) Cert Practice Exam Answers




SECOPS (210-255) Cert Practice Exam
Grade Score 99.1%

1.Which NIST-defined incident response stakeholder is responsible for coordinating incident response with other stakeholders and minimizing the damage of an incident?
human resources
IT support
the legal department
management

2.What is defined in the policy element of the NIST incident response plan?
how to handle incidents based on the mission and functions of an organization
a roadmap for updating the incident response capability
the metrics used for measuring incident response capability in an organization
how the incident response team of an organization will communicate with organization stakeholders

3.Which three IPv4 header fields have no equivalent in an IPv6 header? (Choose three.)
flag
identification
TTL
fragment offset
version
protocol

4.What will a threat actor do to create a back door on a compromised target according to the Cyber Kill Chain model?
Add services and autorun keys.
Obtain an automated tool to deliver the malware payload.
Open a two-way communications channel to the CnC infrastructure.
Collect and exfiltrate data.

5.Refer to the exhibit. A security specialist is checking if files in the directory contain ADS data. Which switch should be used to show that a file has ADS attached?
/a
/r
/s
/d

6.What is the responsibility of the human resources department when handing a security incident as defined by NIST?
Review the incident policies, plans, and procedures for local or federal guideline violations.
Perform disciplinary actions if an incident is caused by an employee.
Coordinate the incident response with other stakeholders and minimize the damage of an incident.
Perform actions to minimize the effectiveness of the attack and preserve evidence.

7.In which top-level element of the VERIS schema does VERIS use the A4 threat model to describe an incident?
incident tracking
incident description
discovery and response
impact assessment

8.A company is applying the NIST.SP800-61 r2 incident handling process to security events. What are two examples of incidents that are in the category of precursor? (Choose two.)
multiple failed logins from an unknown source
log entries that show a response to a port scan
an IDS alert message being sent
a newly-discovered vulnerability in Apache web servers
a host that has been verified as infected with malware

9.What is a goal of deploying an in-line security device that can analyze data as a normalized stream?
reduce the amount of event data
satisfy compliance requirements
detect and block intrusions
decrease network latency and jitter


10.What is the VERIS Community Database (VCDB)?
a collection of research of trend and potential security intrusions
a central location for the security community to learn from experience and help with decision making before, during, and after a security incident
a collection of incident data collected and categorized by a selected group of cybersecurity professionals
an open and free collection of publicly-reported security incidents posted in a variety of data formats

11.According to the Cyber Kill Chain model, after a weapon is delivered to a targeted system, what is the next step that a threat actor would take?
action on objectives
exploitation
weaponization
installation

12.Which metric in the CVSS Base Metric Group is used with an attack vector?
the determination whether the initial authority changes to a second authority during the exploit
the presence or absence of the requirement for user interaction in order for an exploit to be successful
the proximity of the threat actor to the vulnerability
the number of components, software, hardware, or networks, that are beyond the control of the attacker and that must be present in order for a vulnerability to be successfully exploited

13.Which statement describes the card verification value (CVV) for a credit card?
It is the credit card account number.
It is a security feature of the card.
It is a PIN number for the card.
It is the bank account number.

14.Which three fields are found in both the TCP and UDP headers? (Choose three.)
window
checksum
options
sequence number
destination port
source port

15.Which specification provides a common language for describing security incidents in a structured and repeatable way?
VERIS schema
Cyber Kill Chain
NIST Incident Response Life Cycle
Diamond model

16.What is the responsibility of the IT support group when handing an incident as defined by NIST?
reviews the incident policies, plans, and procedures for local or federal guideline violations
performs actions to minimize the effectiveness of the attack and preserve evidence
coordinates the incident response with other stakeholders and minimizes the damage of an incident
performs disciplinary measures if an incident is caused by an employee

17.During the detection and analysis phase of the NIST incident response process life cycle, which sign category is used to describe that an incident might occur in the future?
attrition
impersonation
precursor
indicator

18.After a security monitoring tool identifies a malware attachment entering the network, what is the benefit of performing a retrospective analysis?
It can calculate the probability of a future incident.
It can identify how the malware originally entered the network.
It can determine which network host was first affected.
A retrospective analysis can help in tracking the behavior of the malware from the identification point forward.

19.Which field in the IPv6 header points to optional network layer information that is carried in the IPv6 packet?
flow label
version
traffic class
next header

20.Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst issues the cat command to review the content of the file confidential2. Which encoding method was used to encode the file?
8-bit binary
ASCII
Hex
Base64

21.How much overhead does the TCP header add to data from the application layer?
8 bytes
16 bytes
20 bytes
40 bytes

22.In which step of the NIST incident response process does the CSIRT perform an analysis to determine which networks, systems, or applications are affected; who or what originated the incident; and how the incident is occurring?
incident notification
scoping
attacker identification
detection

23.Refer to the exhibit. Which techology generated the event log?
web proxy
NetFlow
syslog
Wireshark

24.When a server profile for an organization is being established, which element describes the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed to be open on the server?
listening ports
service accounts
critical asset address space
software environment


25.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is examining a NetFlow record. Why would the record indicate that both TRNS SOURCE PORT and TRNS DESTINATION PORT are 0?
The flow contains four packets and they use varying port numbers.
The flow does not include transport layer protocols.
The Gig0/0 interface has not transmitted any packets.
The source host uses a different transport layer protocol from the one used by the destination host.

26.When establishing a server profile for an organization, which element describes the type of service that an application is allowed to run on the server?
listening port
user account
software environment
service account

27.Refer to the exhibit. A security specialist is using Wireshark to review a PCAP file generated by tcpdump. When the client initiated a file download request, which source socket pair was used?
209.165.202.133:6666
209.165.200.235:6666
209.165.202.133:48598
209.165.200.235:48598

28.A cybersecurity analyst is performing a CVSS assessment on an attack where a web link was sent to several employees. Once clicked, an internal attack was launched. Which CVSS Base Metric Group Exploitability metric is used to document that the user had to click on the link in order for the attack to occur?
integrity requirement
availability requirement
user interaction
scope

29.What is the benefit of converting log file data into a common schema?
creates a data model based on fields of data from a source
allows the implementation of partial normalization and inspection
allows easy processing and analysis of datasets
creates a set of regex-based field extractions

30.What are the three impact metrics contained in the CVSS 3.0 Base Metric Group? (Choose three.)
integrity
remediation level
confidentiality
exploit
attack vector
availability

31.Which type of analysis relies on different methods to establish the likelihood that a security event has happened or will happen?
deterministic
statistical
log
probabilistic

32.When establishing a network profile for an organization, which element describes the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination?
routing protocol convergence
session duration
bandwidth of the Internet connection
total throughput

33.When attempting to improve system performance for Linux computers with a limited amount of memory, why is increasing the size of the swap file system not considered the best solution?
A swap file system cannot be mounted on an MBR partition.
A swap file system only supports the ex2 file system.
A swap file system does not have a specific file system.
A swap file system uses hard disk space to store inactive RAM content.

34.What will match the regular expression ^83?
any string that includes 83
any string that begins with 83
any string with values greater than 83
any string that ends with 83

35.Which type of evidence cannot prove an IT security fact on its own?
best
corroborative
indirect
hearsay

36.Which type of computer security incident response team is responsible for determining trends to help predict and provide warning of future security incidents?
coordination centers
analysis centers
vendor teams
national CSIRT

37.Which two actions should be taken during the preparation phase of the incident response life cycle defined by NIST? (Choose two.)
Fully analyze the incident.
Meet with all involved parties to discuss the incident that took place.
Detect all the incidents that occurred.
Acquire and deploy the tools that are needed to investigate incidents.
Create and train the CSIRT

38.Which technology is used by Cisco Advanced Malware Protection (AMP) in defending and protecting against known and emerging threats?
threat intelligence
network admission control
network profiling
website filtering and blacklisting

39.Which two actions can help identify an attacking host during a security incident? (Choose two.)
Use an Internet search engine to gain additional information about the attack.
Log the time and date that the evidence was collected and the incident remediated.
Determine the location of the recovery and storage of all evidence.
Validate the IP address of the threat actor to determine if it is viable.
Develop identifying criteria for all evidence such as serial number, hostname, and IP address

40.What classification is used for an alert that correctly identifies that an exploit has occurred?
false negative
false positive
true positive
true negative

41.Which type of analysis relies on predefined conditions and can analyze applications that only use well-known fixed ports?
statistical
deterministic
log
probabilistic

42.What are security event logs commonly based on when sourced by traditional firewalls?
application analysis
static filtering
signatures
5-tuples

43.Using Tcpdump and Wireshark, a security analyst extracts a downloaded file from a pcap file. The analyst suspects that the file is a virus and wants to know the file type for further examination. Which Linux command can be used to determine the file type?
file
tail
nano
ls -l

44.Which three things will a threat actor do to prepare a DDoS attack against a target system on the Internet? (Choose three.)
Install a black door on the target system.
Collect and exfiltrate data.
Compromise many hosts on the Internet.
Obtain an automated tool to deliver the malware payload.
Establish two-way communications channels to the CnC infrastructure with zombies.
Install attack software on zombies.

45.After containing an incident that infected user workstations with malware, what are three effective remediation procedures that an organization can take for eradication? (Choose three.)
Change assigned names and passwords for all devices.
Update and patch the operating system and installed software of all hosts.
Rebuild hosts with installation media if no backups are available.
Rebuild DHCP servers using clean installation media.
Disconnect or disable all wired and wireless network adapters until the remediation is complete.
Use clean and recent backups to recover hosts.

46.A cybersecurity analyst has been called to a crime scene that contains several technology items including a computer. Which technique will be used so that the information found on the computer can be used in court?
rootkit
log collection
unaltered disk image
Tor

47.What is specified in the plan element of the NIST incident response plan?
incident handling based on the mission of the organization
organizational structure and the definition of roles, responsibilities, and levels of authority
priority and severity ratings of incidents
metrics for measuring the incident response capability and effectiveness

48.A network administrator is creating a network profile to generate a network baseline. What is included in the critical asset address space element?
the TCP and UDP daemons and ports that are allowed to be open on the server
the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data
the list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept data
the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination

49.What are two sources of data in the operation of a security information and event management (SIEM) system? (Choose two.)
firewalls
dashboards and reports
antimalware devices
automation and alerts
incident management systems


50.What are two of the 5-tuples? (Choose two.)
IPS
source port
IDS
ACL
protocol

51.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is examining a NetFlow record. Which protocol is in use in the flow shown?
UDP
ICMP
TCP
HTTP

52.When real-time reporting of security events from multiple sources is being received, which function in SIEM provides capturing and processing of data in a common format?
aggregation
log collection
normalization
compliance

53.What is the role of vendor teams as they relate to a computer security incident response team?
They handle customer reports concerning security vulnerabilities.
They provide incident handling to other organizations as a fee-based service.
They coordinate incident handling across multiple teams.
They use data from many sources to determine incident activity trends.

54.At the request of investors, a company is proceeding with cyber attribution with a particular attack that was conducted from an external source. Which security term is used to describe the person or device responsible for the attack?
threat actor
fragmenter
tunneler
skeleton

55.What are three of the four interactive landscapes that VERIS schema use to define risk?
response
evidence
attack
threat
impact
control